A 24-year-old man is evaluated in a sexual health clinic with a 3-day history of pressure and pain in and above his right testicle. He reports only vaginal insertive intercourse with one partner. He does not have insertive or receptive anal sex. He denies fever, chills, dysuria, hematuria, or other systemic symptoms. He denies suffering any recent trauma or undergoing any recent medical procedures. An initial evaluation is performed, and point-of-care testing shows a positive leukocyte esterase on a first-void urine sample. Additional tests are sent, including a bacterial urine culture and a urine sample for nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae. He weighs 96 kg.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate presumptive therapy for this man?
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Question Last Updated
March 10th, 2025
March 10th, 2025
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