A 34-year-old man presents to a clinic with 5 days of dysuria and right-sided groin pain. He is sexually active with other men. He regularly engages in receptive and insertive anal sex. Physical examination is notable for bulky, tender, right-sided inguinal adenopathy. A diagnosis of lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is suspected.
Which one of the following is TRUE regarding diagnostic testing for LGV?
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Question Last Updated
March 11th, 2025
March 11th, 2025
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