A 31-year-old man presents to a clinic after receiving a phone call from the department of public health informing him that a recent sex partner was diagnosed with chlamydial infection. On further discussion, he was informed that his sex partner had suspected lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV). He last had sexual contact with him three weeks prior. He is now in the clinic for evaluation and feels well, without any genitourinary complaints. He has urine, rectal, and pharyngeal nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) ordered for chlamydia and gonorrhea, as well as serologic testing for HIV and syphilis.
Which one of the following is the next best step in managing this man while awaiting test results?
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Question Last Updated
March 11th, 2025
March 11th, 2025
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