A 24-year-old man who has sex with men is seen in a sexual health clinic with rectal discharge and tenesmus. He states that 10 days ago he had two perianal ulcers that have now resolved. A rectal nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) for chlamydia is positive. He is diagnosed presumptively with lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV).
Which one of the following is the recommended treatment for rectal LGV?
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Question Last Updated
March 11th, 2025
March 11th, 2025
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